Differentiability at means that there is a linear map such thatThe partial derivatives are when the derivative exists; independently, they may be defined by the corresponding one-variable difference quotients.
Suppose the partial derivatives exist near and are continuous at . Apply the one-dimensional mean value theorem along the two coordinate segments from to . It gives intermediate points such thatContinuity of the partials makes the remainder after subtractingequal to . Hence is differentiable and this is its derivative.
For the given function, writing , at we haveAt the origin both partial derivatives are zero, since and tend to zero. Neither partial is continuous there: along its corresponding coordinate axis the cosine term oscillates without a limit. Neverthelessso is differentiable at the origin with derivative zero. This illustrates that existence of partial derivatives does not imply their continuity.
The final assertion is false. DefineAgain , so is differentiable at the origin and it is smooth elsewhere. But along the -axis,is unbounded near zero, and similarly is unbounded. Thus both partial derivatives can be unbounded in every neighbourhood of a point even when the function is differentiable everywhere.
Solved by gpt-5.6-sol high.
Codex Wiki